BANKING AFFAIRS

BANKING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Question [CLICK ON ANY CHOICE TO KNOW THE RIGHT ANSWER]
Which of the following was the reason owing to which Govt wants Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs?
A
To reduce liquidity in the market
B
It is as per Basel II requirements.
C
It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives.
D
It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown.
Explanation: 

Detailed explanation-1: -RBI rationalises prudential norms for NBFCs As such, a loan asset would become NPA if the instalment or interest thereon remains overdue for six months and a lease or hire purchase asset would become NPA if the lease rentals or hire purchase instalment remains overdue for twelve months.

Detailed explanation-2: -It acts as the banker and financial advisor to government . It supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans. It promotes financial inclusion by ensuring that banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small scale industries, and small borrowers.

Detailed explanation-3: -As per the extant regulations, every NBFC is required to maintain a minimum capital ratio of 15 per cent of its aggregate risk-weighted assets (including both on and off-balance sheet items). To further strengthen their capital position, the PCA framework for NBFCs will be made effective from October 1, 2022.

Detailed explanation-4: -Systemically Important Core Investment Company (CIC-ND-SI): CIC-ND-SI is an NBFC carrying on the business of acquisition of shares and securities.

There is 1 question to complete.