ECONOMICS (CBSE/UGC NET)

ECONOMICS

INCOME DISTRIBUTION

Question [CLICK ON ANY CHOICE TO KNOW THE RIGHT ANSWER]
Complete income equality has a Gini Coefficient of
A
0
B
1
C
Either A or B
D
None of the above
Explanation: 

Detailed explanation-1: -A Gini coefficient of 0 reflects perfect equality, where all income or wealth values are the same, while a Gini coefficient of 1 (or 100%) reflects maximal inequality among values. For example, if everyone has the same income, the Gini coefficient will be 0.

Detailed explanation-2: -The Gini coefficient is based on the comparison of cumulative proportions of the population against cumulative proportions of income they receive, and it ranges between 0 in the case of perfect equality and 1 in the case of perfect inequality.

Detailed explanation-3: -The coefficient can take any values between 0 to 1 (or 0% to 100%). A coefficient of zero indicates a perfectly equal distribution of income or wealth within a population. A coefficient of one represents a perfect inequality when one person in a population receives all the income, while other people earn nothing.

Detailed explanation-4: -The Gini Coefficient measures the degree of income equality in a population. The Gini Coefficient can vary from 0 (perfect equality) to 1 (perfect inequality). A Gini Coefficient of zero means that everyone has the same income, while a Coefficient of 1 represents a single individual receiving all the income.

There is 1 question to complete.