# ECONOMICS (CBSE/UGC NET)

## ECONOMICS

### MARKET FAILURES

 Question [CLICK ON ANY CHOICE TO KNOW THE RIGHT ANSWER]
What is Gini Coefficient?
 A In the presence of externalities, an economy can always reach an efficient solution as long as transaction costs are low. B A geometric representation of the share distribution of income among families in a given country at a given time. C An index between 0 and 1 derived from the Lorenz curve. 0 = income is perfectly equally distributed. 1 = income is one controlling all income. D None of the above
Explanation:

Detailed explanation-1: -The Gini coefficient is used to express the extent of inequality in a single figure. It most often ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%). Complete equality, in which every individual has the exact same income or wealth, corresponds to a coefficient of 0.

Detailed explanation-2: -A Lorenz curve plots the cumulative percentages of total income received against the cumulative number of recipients, starting with the poorest individual. Thus a Gini index of 0 represents perfect equality, while an index of 100 implies perfect inequality.

Detailed explanation-3: -The Gini coefficient is the area between the Lorenz curve of the income distribution and the diagonal line of complete equality, expressed as a proportion of the triangular area between the curves of complete equality and inequality.

Detailed explanation-4: -The Gini coefficient is based on the comparison of cumulative proportions of the population against cumulative proportions of income they receive, and it ranges between 0 in the case of perfect equality and 1 in the case of perfect inequality.

Detailed explanation-5: -The Gini coefficient measures the extent to which the distribution of income within a country deviates from a perfectly equal distribution. A coefficient of 0 expresses perfect equality where everyone has the same income, while a coefficient of 100 expresses full inequality where only one person has all the income.

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