FAMOUS PLAYWRIGHT POET AND OTHERS
HAMLET
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Question
[CLICK ON ANY CHOICE TO KNOW THE RIGHT ANSWER]
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As a means of personal enlightenment
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As a manipulative political tool
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As a way to express their desires
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As a means of courtship
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Detailed explanation-1: -Members of the nobility, like Claudius, almost always speak in verse, but commoners like the gravedigger use prose. When Hamlet speaks in prose to Rosencrantz and Guildenstern-who are high-status enough to speak verse with the King-it suggests he is talking down to them.
Detailed explanation-2: -Hamlet acts mad in order to manipulate Ophelia into believing he is gone crazy. Hamlet planned to create a dominos effect that would start with Ophelia thinking he has gone mad which would lead her to pass this information onto Polonius further passing it onto Claudius.
Detailed explanation-3: -The uses of dutiful language through Rosencrantz and Guildenstern’s dialogue emphasises dramatic tension, furthermore the constant repetition of questions from Hamlet underline the dramatic effect of uncertainty.
Detailed explanation-4: -Hamlet is mostly written in iambic pentameter and is 75% verse so it’s interesting to watch out for where it isn’t used. For example, look out for Hamlet and Ophelia’s exchanges and think about who is using prose and who is using verse and why that might be.