ENGLISH LITERATURE (CBSE/UGC NET)

FAMOUS PLAYWRIGHT POET AND OTHERS

MACBETH

Question [CLICK ON ANY CHOICE TO KNOW THE RIGHT ANSWER]
What is the most likely reason Shakespeare has the witches to speak in rhyme, which none of the other characters in this scene do?
A
Their comments are humorous.
B
The rhymes sound like witches’ spells.
C
They are supposed to seem childish.
D
Everything they say is an outright lie.
Explanation: 

Detailed explanation-1: -What is the most likely reason Shakespeare has the witches to speak in rhyme, which none of the other characters in this scene do? Their comments are humorous.

Detailed explanation-2: -Shakespeare intended to portray the witches as different from the human characters in the play, which is partly accomplished by making their speech distinct from the rest of the dialogue.

Detailed explanation-3: -This rhyming couplet signifies a final end to the drama. Notice that the witches do not speak in iambic pentameter. Their lines are more often eight syllables in length and follow a pattern that is the opposite of iambic meter: stressed then unstressed (this is called trochaic tetrameter).

Detailed explanation-4: -The Witches in Macbeth cast a spell together as they chant the famous lines, “Double, double toil and trouble; Fire burn and cauldron bubble.” Just like a chorus in a song today, the Witches repeat these famous lines throughout the spell.

Detailed explanation-5: -Shakespeare wrote Macbeth at a time when interest in witchcraft bordered on hysteria. Witches were blamed for causing illness, death and disaster, and were thought to punish their enemies by giving them nightmares, making their crops fail and their animals sicken.

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