WORLD HISTORY

HISTORY

WORLD WAR II

Question [CLICK ON ANY CHOICE TO KNOW THE RIGHT ANSWER]
What caused Neville Chamberlain to appease Hitler?
A
His personal friendship with Hitler
B
His belief that Britain would eventually defeat Hitler
C
His desire to avoid a world war
D
None of the above
Explanation: 

Detailed explanation-1: -Chamberlain ultimately ceded to all of Hitler’s demands at Munich because he believed Britain and Nazi Germany were “the two pillars of European peace and buttresses against communism".

Detailed explanation-2: -Chamberlain, as with many in Europe who had witnessed the horrors of the First World War and its aftermath, was dedicated to restoring peace at almost any price. He met German chancellor Adolf Hitler in Munich 1938, the result of which was an agreement that Britain and Germany would never again go to war.

Detailed explanation-3: -The policy of appeasement convinced Hitler that western democracies had neither the intention nor the capacity to stand in front of Germany. He was greatly emboldened by the appeasing attitude. Eventually, the policy of appeasement drove Hitler to attack Poland on 1st Sep 1939 and with this World War II commenced.

Detailed explanation-4: -Appeasement, the policy of making concessions to dictatorial powers in order to avoid conflict, governed Anglo-French foreign policy during the 1930s. Learning from the First World War made Britain and France apprehensive of another global escalation and they wanted to avoid a war-like situation by any means.

Detailed explanation-5: -Why do you think Chamberlain was so excited after the Munich Agreement? How might other nations have felt about the Munich Agreement? Why? He would bring peace which made Chamberlain hopeful.

There is 1 question to complete.