CLINICAL MEDICINE

MEDICINE

CARDIOLOGY

Question [CLICK ON ANY CHOICE TO KNOW THE RIGHT ANSWER]
A 48-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, tinnitus, and blurred vision. He is conscious and alert and denies any other symptoms. His BP is 204/120 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 100 beats/min, and his oxygen ____
A
start an IV line and administer labetalol.
B
monitor his cardiac rhythm and transport.
C
administer high-flow oxygen and transport.
D
keep him in a supine position and transport.
Explanation: 

Detailed explanation-1: -Give the shock as quickly as possible. Immediately after shock delivery, resume CPR (beginning with chest compressions) without delay and continue for 5 cycles (or about 2 minutes if an advanced airway is in place), and then check the rhythm (Box 5).

Detailed explanation-2: -A patient with right ventricular failure would most likely present with: an enlarged liver. A prolonged PR interval: indicates an abnormal delay at the AV node.

Detailed explanation-3: -The main sign of right-sided heart failure is fluid buildup. This buildup leads to swelling (edema) in your: Feet, ankles and legs.

Detailed explanation-4: -An anginal equivalent is a symptom such as shortness of breath (dyspnea), diaphoresis (sweating), extreme fatigue, or pain at a site other than the chest, occurring in a patient at high cardiac risk. Anginal equivalents are considered to be symptoms of myocardial ischemia.

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