MRCP UK EXAMINATIONS

ABDOMINAL

ABDOMINAL STATION

Question [CLICK ON ANY CHOICE TO KNOW THE RIGHT ANSWER]
Clinically, which of the following statements regarding indirect inguinal hernia is false?
A
It could be a congenital hernia.
B
It penetrates the deep inguinal ring.
C
If the hernia is lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
D
It lies within the deep spermatic fascia.
E
It passes through the inguinal triangle.
Explanation: 

Detailed explanation-1: -A direct inguinal hernia protrudes through the Hesselbach triangle, while an indirect inguinal hernia does not. However, both types of hernia will likely involve intestines or bowel. A direct inguinal hernia typically occurs in older individuals from weakness in the abdominal wall due to age.

Detailed explanation-2: -Indirect inguinal hernia: An indirect inguinal hernia enters your inguinal canal through the top. This usually occurs because of a birth defect. In some fetuses, the opening to their canal doesn’t close all the way during development in the uterus.

Detailed explanation-3: -Because the sac emerges through the deep inguinal ring and passes through the inguinal canal, it is an indirect type and because it passes beside the spermatic cord we call it juxtacordal hernia.

Detailed explanation-4: -A bulge in the area on either side of your pubic bone, which becomes more obvious when you’re upright, especially if you cough or strain. A burning or aching sensation at the bulge. Pain or discomfort in your groin, especially when bending over, coughing or lifting. A heavy or dragging sensation in your groin. More items •24-Apr-2021

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