AP PSYCHOLOGY

ABNORMAL BEHAVIOR

SCHIZOPHRENIA

Question [CLICK ON ANY CHOICE TO KNOW THE RIGHT ANSWER]
Why did Davis (1991) update the dopamine hypothesis?
A
Because high levels of dopamine was not found in all schizophrenics
B
Because the original was too simplistic
C
Because the original was too complex
D
Because he found that Serotonin was also implicated
Explanation: 

Detailed explanation-1: -Research on dopamine concentrations in postmortem brain tissue, on homovanillic acid concentrations, and on dopamine receptors has been negative or inconclusive. Therefore, the idea that the symptoms of psychosis or schizophrenia are caused by the overactivity of dopamine is not supported by current evidence.

Detailed explanation-2: -Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter involved in the pathology of schizophrenia. The revised dopamine hypothesis states that dopamine abnormalities in the mesolimbic and prefrontal brain regions exist in schizophrenia.

Detailed explanation-3: -The “original dopamine hypothesis” states that hyperactive dopamine transmission results in schizophrenic symptoms. This hypothesis was formed upon the discovery of dopamine as a neurotransmitter in the brain by Arvid Carlsson (6–12).

Detailed explanation-4: -The current dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia does not adequately explain the cognitive and negative symptoms. Current treatments which modulate dopamine transmission have only modest effects in improving these symptoms.

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